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Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents? A. To help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks B. To reduce polling traffic on the network C. To verify that interfaces are in the correct state D. To suppress duplicate alarms and for event correlation E. To ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately Answer: A
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario? A. IGP table B. VRF routing table C. Global routing table D. BGP table Answer: D
A content provider uses ISP-A and ISP-B for Internet transit service for the purpose of redundancy and load balancing. The content provider has one address range assigned to it. Which two techniques achieve the load balancing and redundancy for inbound traffic? (Choose two) A. BGP Local-preference attribute B. BGP MED attribute C. Use ISP-A for outbound traffic and ISP-B for inbound traffic D. BGP AS-prepend technique E. Address range split into two more specific prefixes, then advertise one specific prefix per ISP F. Aggregate all prefixes received from both ISPs into a less-specific prefix Answer: D, E
An engineer has just configured IOS-XR with out-of-band MPP. Which are the three results that will occur? (Choose three.) A.Management traffic to RP from all non-MPP interfaces is dropped B.RP/DRP Ethernet Interfaces are not default out-of-band interfaces. C.MPP configuration changes doesn't affect active sessions established before the changes D.Interfaces configured for out-of-band MPP are still part of global routing/forwarding E.If MPP is disabled and a protocol is activated, all interfaces cannot pass traffic F.LPTS will provide rate limiting Answer: ACF
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Share some CCIE Data Center 400-151 exam questions and answers below. Refer to the exhibit.
SwitchA and switchB have these zone sets currently active and are connected by an ISL that is configured to transport VSA Enhanced zoning is configured for VSAN, and merge-control is set torestrict. Which statement about this configuration is true? A. Enhanced zoning is configured, so the user is prompted on the CLI to permit or deny Zone2 into the active zone set. B. Zone merge fails because the currently active zone sets are not identical. C. Zone merge succeeds and the resulting zone set matches switch B. D. Zone merge fails because merge-control set to restrict, which means that merges are never permitted. E. Zone merge succeeds but Zone2 is dropped from the active zone set because it is not currently included in the active zone set in switcha. Answer: E
Which three statements are true about redistribution of routes from L3Outs in an ACI Fabric?(Choose 3) A. Routes are not redistributed to leaf switches where the same VRF is present B. ACI fabric runs MP-BGP C. Security import subnets control the forwarding of packets into and out o L3Out connections(data plane). D. Routes learned from L3Outs on border leaf switches are not redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress lead. E. Route control subnets control the exchange of routing information(Prefixes) into and out of the fibric (control place). Answer: BCE
Which option lists valid network interfaces for VSM? A. Layer 2, Layer 3, and keepalive B. control, management, and packet C. management, Layer 2, and Layer 3 D. management, packet, and VSM Answer: B
Which Cisco UCS Director feature enables you to view the REST API URL for every report displayed in Cisco UCS Director? A. report metadata B. orchestration feature set C. REST API Browser D. automation feature set Answer: A
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Answer:
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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below. Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.) A. the process ID B. the hello interval C. the subnet mask D. authentication E. the router ID F. the OSPF interface priority Answer: BCD
Which IPv6 migration method allows IPv4-only devices to communicate with IPv6-only devices? A. GRE tunnel B. dual stack C. ISATAP tunnel D. NAT64 Answer: D
Which traffic plane supports the TFTP and FTP protocols? A. control plane B. management plane C. data plane D. service plane Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.
You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Router 2 to establish the tunnel? (Choose two) A. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on Router 1 B. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on Router 1 C. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router 1 D. Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router 2 E. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1toR2 Answer: D ,E
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two conclusions can you draw from this output (choose two) A. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an APR entry for the device at 10.9.132.254. B. The packet was source-routed. C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254. D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 E. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 Answer: C, E
Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP? A. bgp redistribute-internal B. redistribute protocol process-number C. synchronization D. no synchronization Answer: A
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Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do on the corporate directory of your IP phone? A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI. B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS. C. Update your IM&P server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC. E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user database. Answer: A
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Answer: E
Which two settings should be configured on the SIP Trunk Security Profile for the IM & Presence Service SIP Trunk? (Choose two.) A. Check to enable Accept Presence Subscription. B. Verify that the setting for Incoming Transport Type is TCP+UDP. C. Configure Device Security Mode to Encrypted. D. Check to enable Enable Application Level Authorization. E. Configure the Outgoing Transport Type to TLS. Answer: A,B
What is the maximum number of option 150 IP addresses that a Cisco IP SCCP phone will accept and use from a DHCP server? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: B
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When using two AC for VRRP networking, what kind of address allocation scheme cannot be used in order to assign the correct address and gateway to the AP? A. Static specified address scheme B. DHCP interface pool scheme C. DHCP global pool scheme D. DHCP relay scheme Answer: B
How many APs can ACU2 manage? A. 512 B. 1024 C. 2048 D. 4096 Answer: C
Which of the following statements on the indoor distribution devices are right? (Multiple choice) A. combiner can compound multiplexed input signal to one way to output, reverse filter and separate the mixed signal B. One signal can be divided into multi-channel signal by Power splitter to output C. The coupler is a power divider with unequal output power that removes the desired signal energy from the mainline to the remote antenna and allocates more signal energy to the proximal antenna D. WLAN indoor distribution network generally use microstrip power splitter, relative to the cavity power splitter, power is low, and cost is low. Answer: ABD
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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below. When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? A. managing the increase connected devices B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability C. providing device choice and support D. enforcing company usage policies Answer: D
Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC? A. classic mobility B. new mobility C. converged access mobility D. auto-anchor mobility Answer: C
Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.) A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches. B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary. C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch. D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch. E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary. F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary. Answer: A,E,F
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point? A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK C. KCK, KEK, TK D. KCK, KEK, MIC key Answer: A
A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN? A. PMF B. peer-to-peer blocking C. Cisco Centralized Key Management D. split tunnel Answer: A
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While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default seventy level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the seventy level to its factory setting? A.informational B.major C.minor D.warning E.critical Answer: D
An engineer is troubleshooting AP join issues on a wireless infrastructure. While gathering debugs, the engineer notices that one of the commands may generate an excessive an excessive amount of data on the console. Which command causes this to occur? A.debug capwap detail enable B.debug capwap errors enable C.debug capwap info enable D.debug capwap events enable E.debug capwap packet enable F.debug capwap payload enable Answer: B
Which ports require unrestricted port access for CleanAir RF spectrum analysis between the AP and Cisco Spectrum Expert? A.UDP 5246 and 5247 B.UDP 37540 and 37550 C.TCP 16113 and 16114 D.TCP 37540 and 37550 E.TCP 5246 and 5247 F.UDP 16113and 16114 Answer: D
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